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  1. I know officially the word "whom" is the accusative form of "who", but is it only I who thinks it doesn't fit without a preposition before>

    Saturday, 23-Aug-14 00:47:20 UTC from quitter.se
    1. @awlkhalyan it? As in, "whom did they sell it to?" doesn't seem right; "to whom it may concern" DOES seem right. I saw the first example>

      Saturday, 23-Aug-14 00:48:14 UTC from quitter.se
      1. @awlkhalyan in a book and it really irked me.

        Saturday, 23-Aug-14 00:48:25 UTC from quitter.se
      2. @awlkhalyan isnt "whom did they sell it to" much the same as "to whom did they sell it"? Sounds ok to me

        Saturday, 23-Aug-14 01:57:32 UTC from quitter.se
        1. @mcscx They are the same and reflecting, "it" in this sentence is the subject, "who" is object, so accusative case is correct.

          Saturday, 23-Aug-14 03:54:43 UTC from quitter.se
    2. @awlkhalyan i hardly even know how to use "whom"

      Saturday, 23-Aug-14 01:07:32 UTC from web
      1. @mushi It's an anachronism anymore, a word you use if you're a hipster, in speech.

        Saturday, 23-Aug-14 01:16:01 UTC from quitter.se