Conversation

Notices

  1. awlxaĺan awlxaĺan

    I wonder if languages that have three degrees of demonstrative pronouns (here, there, over there) are descended from ancestor languages that had no separate words for personal pronouns.

    Thursday, 31-Mar-16 23:48:43 UTC from web
    1. Cloud Kicker Cloud Kicker

      @awl Pretty sure that modern day English is an evolution of language derrived from the Romans ( noteworthy, Latin ) Saxons ( noteworthy, Old Saxon and Anglo-frisian in a way ) and the Celts ( you know, Celtic ) ... And the last one does not even have three degrees of demonstrative pronouns. They combined words to get their nth degree. ( The Jutes, Vikings, the Danish and Normans also had a lot to say in it, litterally, but I do not know much of their languages )

      Friday, 01-Apr-16 00:03:19 UTC from web
      1. awlxaĺan awlxaĺan

        @critialcloudkicker Yet all of those have the same common ancestor from which all those that descended from it utilised some constructions but not all. Projected PIE might have had personal pronouns but what about its ancestor? This tier, the pre-proto, is what I'm curious on.

        Friday, 01-Apr-16 00:16:36 UTC from web
        1. Cloud Kicker Cloud Kicker

          @awl From a historian point of view that can be really interesting, yes, sadly I do not know anything about that. I never was a historian anyway. And unless if anyone wants to change a lot regarding some core fundamentals that of a system that has been there for a LOOONG time, I do not think we need a historian anyway.

          Why even ask a historian ? Simple, it might have been attempted before. And you can learn a lot from things that have been attempted before.\

          Friday, 01-Apr-16 00:25:07 UTC from web
    2. monsutaa kaado! monsutaa kaado!

      @awl my latim tescher is speciallist in classical languages, i could ask her if she knows anything about it

      Friday, 01-Apr-16 00:16:16 UTC from web